Thursday, November 28, 2024
Friday, November 22, 2024
Pop quiz
When Milton Friedman made the comment about the equivalence of two theories (implicitly chracterized by assumptions they're based on, say realistic versus unrealistic) if they predicted the same outcome, was he not being merely tautological? Is he not simply stating that theories predicting the same outcome form an equivalence class over the set of competing theories?
Discuss.
Labels:
Commentary,
Economics,
Mathematics,
Philosophy
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